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Why is this wrong? (1 = 2 proof)

 
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Jack_Ian
Big Endian



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 8:45 pm    Post subject: 1 Reply with quote

Quote:
1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + …
1 = 1 + 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 2
I can see the step where the mistake was made, but I don't know why it was mathematically incorrect to take that step.
Can anyone shed any light on the rule that was broken?
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wordcross

<memstat>



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 8:59 pm    Post subject: 2 Reply with quote

When you first add the pieces in parentheses, you have an infinite number of sets. When you remove them, then you are ignoring the fact that they are sets. It should really look like this:
Quote:
1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + …+ -1
1 = 1 + 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + … + -1
1 = 1 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + … + -1
1 = 1


i.e. since they are sets, your series must always end in a -1
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Jack_Ian
Big Endian



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 9:18 pm    Post subject: 3 Reply with quote

In infinite set ending in a -1?

I know the proof is wrong. My problem is that if I take any two consecutive lines, the step taken seems mathematically correct. It seems clear given the example above that the logic is incorrect, but how would I recognise such an error in a more complicated algebraic proof?
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mith
Pitbull of Truth



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 9:41 pm    Post subject: 4 Reply with quote

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/ConditionalConvergence.html
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wordcross

<memstat>



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 9:55 pm    Post subject: 5 Reply with quote

Alright fine, how about this way, then:
Quote:
1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + …
1 = 1 + 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + -1 + …
1 = 1 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + -1 + …
1 = 1


Basically, when you add the step with the sets you're saying "Here's an infinite series, but after the first integer if you have a +1 then you must have a -1"
Then you proceed to step 3 which is fine, but then in step 4 you've ignored the "you must have a -1" part of what you said in step 2. So you have to show it.
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Jack_Ian
Big Endian



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 10:06 pm    Post subject: 6 Reply with quote

mith wrote:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/ConditionalConvergence.html
Thanks mith.

So does that make the very first step incorrect?
Is "(1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + … " not equal to zero after all?
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Jack_Ian
Big Endian



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 10:10 pm    Post subject: 7 Reply with quote

wordcross wrote:
Basically, when you add the step with the sets you're saying "Here's an infinite series, but after the first integer if you have a +1 then you must have a -1"
Then you proceed to step 3 which is fine, but then in step 4 you've ignored the "you must have a -1" part of what you said in step 2. So you have to show it.
So would you disagree with the following then?
Quote:
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + …
I'm basically looking for the general rule. mith has pointed me in the right direction.
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wordcross

<memstat>



PostPosted: Mon Nov 01, 2010 10:33 pm    Post subject: 8 Reply with quote

Nope, that's fine. You still have a -1 for every +1 after the first.
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Nsof
Daedalian Member



PostPosted: Tue Nov 02, 2010 12:16 am    Post subject: 9 Reply with quote

Jack_Ian wrote:
Quote:
1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + …
1 = 1 + 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 2
I can see the step where the mistake was made, but I don't know why it was mathematically incorrect to take that step.
Can anyone shed any light on the rule that was broken?
I think that this is where it got wrong
Quote:
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
the serie on the right does not converge. Since it has no limit the equation is meaningless.
This also means that it is not conditional convergent. The Riemann series theorem (which states that a conditional convergent series can be arranged so that the series converges to any given value). does not apply.
On the other hand you can reach any integer value
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MatthewV
Daedalian Member :_



PostPosted: Tue Nov 02, 2010 12:34 am    Post subject: 10 Reply with quote

This is why people usually will show the first few and the last few terms.
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extro...*
Guest



PostPosted: Tue Nov 02, 2010 1:04 am    Post subject: 11 Reply with quote

Quote:

1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + …


This step goes from an infinity of zeros, which adds up to zero, to two infinities, one of negative ones, another of positive ones, which can be paired up one-to-one, one-to-two, or many other ways. Thus it has the property that, in the words of the page mith linked to "by a suitable rearrangement of terms ... may be made to converge to any desired value, or to diverge"

wordcross wrote:
You still have a -1 for every +1 after the first.


And you also have a -1 for every two +1s, or three, etc., depending on how you want to group them. Infinities are like that. Thus again "by a suitable rearrangement of terms ... may be made to converge to any desired value, or to diverge".
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extro...*
Guest



PostPosted: Tue Nov 02, 2010 1:07 am    Post subject: 12 Reply with quote

Here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grandi's_series
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extro...*
Guest



PostPosted: Tue Nov 02, 2010 1:26 am    Post subject: 13 Reply with quote

extro...* wrote:
Here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grandi's_series


Quote:
It can be shown that it is not valid to perform many seemingly innocuous operations on a series, such as reordering individual terms, unless the series is absolutely convergent. Otherwise these operations can alter the result of summation. It's easy to see how terms of Grandi's series can be rearranged to arrive at any integer number, not only 0 or 1.
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Jack_Ian
Big Endian



PostPosted: Tue Nov 02, 2010 12:39 pm    Post subject: 14 Reply with quote

Thank you extro…
That was exactly what I was looking for.
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Jack_Ian
Big Endian



PostPosted: Wed Nov 10, 2010 2:39 pm    Post subject: 15 Reply with quote

I showed my 8 year old daughter the above proof and asked her where she thought the mistake was made.
She told me that she wasn't sure about the third step, i.e. "1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + … ", and wanted to ask me a question first.
Sure I said, ready to display my brilliance and become her mathematical hero.
"Is infinity odd or even?"
I was stumped. I said it was neither, but I could tell she wasn't impressed with that answer.
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Chuck
Daedalian Member



PostPosted: Wed Nov 10, 2010 2:48 pm    Post subject: 16 Reply with quote

Let x = 1-1+1-1+1-1+1-1...

subtract 1 from each side

x-1 = -1+1-1+1-1+1-1+1...

add the above two equations together

2x-1 = 0+0+0+0+0+0+0... = 0

add 1 to each side

2x = 1

divide both sides by 2

x = ½
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ralphmerridew
Daedalian Member



PostPosted: Wed Nov 10, 2010 4:54 pm    Post subject: 17 Reply with quote

The short answer is that you have to justify that the sum of an infinite series is well-defined before you do anything related to that sum.

Doing otherwise is akin to to "Let P be the point where lines L1 and L2 intersect. For reason X, P must be equidistant from points A and B ..." without first proving that lines L1 and L2 do intersect.
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davidchatman
Icarian Member



PostPosted: Tue Oct 25, 2011 9:57 am    Post subject: 18 Reply with quote

Finally, here is the Nobel prize nomination for mathematics Laughing
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cb*
Guest



PostPosted: Mon Mar 19, 2012 4:53 am    Post subject: 19 Reply with quote

Jack_Ian wrote:
I showed my 8 year old daughter the above proof [...]
"Is infinity odd or even?"
I was stumped. I said it was neither, but I could tell she wasn't impressed with that answer.
Jack, your daughter is my hero. She found a great way to express simply one of the paradoxes of infinity.

Also, infinity is simultaneously "neither odd nor even" (if you argue that it's not really a number in the first place, so the concepts don't apply), and "both odd and even", considering that there's "some number" for which inf'ty = 2 * said number, and inf'ty = 1 + 2 * said number. Enthusiastic Grin
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yevalent
Icarian Member



PostPosted: Tue Sep 18, 2012 10:18 am    Post subject: 20 Reply with quote

Here is the correct sequence ... 1=2 never possible .......

1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + …
1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + …+ -1
1 = 1 + 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + … + -1
1 = 1 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + … + -1
1 = 1 (Hence Proved) ....
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extropalopakettle
No offense, but....



PostPosted: Tue Sep 18, 2012 1:43 pm    Post subject: 21 Reply with quote

1 = 1 + (1 + -1) + (1 + -1) + …
1 = 1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + 1 + …+ -1

How can you just stick a "+ -1" at the end?
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