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morrisonlucas
Daedalian Member

 Posted: Fri Aug 23, 2002 8:17 pm    Post subject: 41 (I'm assuming that X0 is the number of integers. i.e. the smallest infinity.) My previous post most mostly to show that everything is non-intuitive in this realm. I was really trying to find a simple one-to-one mapping between the two sets {no threes} and {some threes}, and that was as close as I could come without resorting just ordering them. That being said: I agree with both of the following statements: (1) There are as many integers that contain the digit 3 as there are total integers. (2) There are as many integers that do not contain the digit 3 as there are total integers. From this I do not think that it is fair to say that 100% of integers contain the number 3. To obtain the number 100% you need to divide X0 by itself, which is a meaningless operation. CrystyB-if you tell me which symbol you were using for X I'll edit this one for consistant notation.
CrystyB
Misunderstood Guy

 Posted: Sat Aug 24, 2002 12:34 am    Post subject: 42 Well first of all, one would have to define percentages to be able to use them in infinte set theory, so no, no inf/inf nedetermination. Remember i did say it would be fair to say 100% of all numbers are cubes of some integers! So why not all threes too? Secondly, click on the icon for editing my post and copy-paste the sym tags (or whatever else you need), b/c i can't tell you what À is - i use CharMap... Third, mith i think you should open a new mistakes, and rename this as 'debates over long-forgotten puzzles'
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